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BUS 517 Final Exam – Strayer New

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Final Exam, Part 1: Chapters 6-8

Final Exam, Part 2, Chapters 9-12

Final Exam, Part 3: Chapters 13-14 and Chapter 16

Ch6

1. Information to develop a project network is collected from the  A. Organization breakdown structure B. Work breakdown structure C. Budget D. Project proposal E. Responsibility matrix

2. Which of the following represents an activity on an AON project network?  A. An arrow B. A line C. A node D. Both A and B are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

3. Arrows on an AON project network represent:  A. An activity B. Project flow C. Dependency D. Both B and C are correct E. Both A and B are correct

4. When translated into a project network, a work package will become  A. A single activity B. One or more activities C. A milestone D. A critical path E. An arrow

5. Which of the following is provided by a project network but not by the work breakdown structure?  A. Dependencies B. Sequencing C. Interrelationships D. Both A and B are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

6. On a project network, the activity times are derived from the  A. Organization breakdown structure B. Work packages C. Budget D. Project proposal E. Responsibility matrix

7. Part of a project is to Develop Product Specifications. This is best classified as a(n)  A. Event B. Path C. Activity D. Node E. Milestone

8. An activity that has more than one dependency arrow flowing into it is termed a(n)  A. Parallel activity B. Critical path C. Burst activity D. Merge activity E. Independent activity

9. The critical path in a project network is the  A. Shortest path through the network B. Longest path through the network C. Network path with the most difficult activities D. Network path using the most resources E. Network path with the most merge activities

10. A/an _________ activity has more than one dependency arrow flowing from it.  A. Parallel B. Critical path C. Burst D. Merge E. Independent

11. An item on a project network is Design Software Completed. This is best described as a(n)  A. Event B. Path C. Activity D. Node E. Milestone

12. Activities which can take place at the same time are termed  A. Parallel activity B. Critical path C. Burst activity D. Merge activity E. Independent activity

13. A sequence of connected, dependent activities is termed a(n)  A. Critical path B. Parallel path C. Activity chain D. Path E. Dependent chain

14. An AON project network uses which of the following basic building blocks?  A. Arrows B. Bars C. Nodes D. Both A and C are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

15. Which of the following is not one of the basic rules to follow when developing project networks?  A. An activity cannot begin until all preceding activities have been completed B. Each activity must have a unique identification number C. Conditional statements are allowed but looping statements are not allowed D. An activity identification number must be larger that that of any preceding activities E. Networks flow from left to right

16. ________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.  A. Merge B. Burst C. Predecessor D. Successor E. Critical

17. ________ activities are to be completed immediately following a particular activity.  A. Merge B. Burst C. Predecessor D. Successor E. Critical

18. The forward pass in project network calculations determines the  A. Earliest time's activities can begin B. Earliest time's activities can be finished C. Duration of the project D. Both A and B are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

19. The backward pass in project network calculations determines the  A. Latest time's activities can begin B. Earliest time's activities can be finished C. Critical path D. Both A and C are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

20. Which of the following correctly calculates the early finish for an activity?  A. LS + DUR B. ES + DUR C. LF + DUR D. ES + SL E. LF + SL

21. Which of the following correctly calculates the late start for an activity?  A. EF - DUR B. ES - DUR C. LF - DUR D. ES - SL E. LF - SLACK

22. The amount of time an activity can be delayed and yet not delay the project is termed  A. Total slack B. Free slack C. Critical float D. Float pad E. Slip pad

23. Which of the following will correctly calculate the total slack in an activity?  A. LS - ES B. LF - EF C. LS - LF D. LF - ES E. Both A and B are correct

24. The laying pipe example in the text illustrates the concept of  A. Laddering B. Hammock activities C. Critical path D. Concurrent engineering E. Forward pass

25. Using a special color copy machine for a tradeshow publication illustrates the concept of  A. Laddering B. Hammock activities C. Critical path D. Concurrent engineering E. Forward pass

26. If, for some reason, the project must be expedited to meet an earlier date, which of the following actions would the project manager take first?  A. Check to see which activities cost the least B. Check to see which activities have the longest duration C. Check to see which activities are on the critical path D. Check to see which activities have the most slack E. Check to see which activities have the highest risk

27. Typically an activity on a project network represents  A. A single work package B. One or more tasks from a work package C. Several work packages D. A sub-deliverable E. A cost account

28. Project network logic errors include which of the following?  A. Activities with less than 1 day duration B. Sequences such as "if test successful build prototype, if failure redesign" C. A sequence such as B succeeds A, C succeeds B, A succeeds C D. Both B and C are network logic errors E. A, B, and C are all network logic errors

29. Which company utilized concurrent engineering to design a new line of cars and in the process completed its development six months ahead of schedule?  A. General Motors B. Chrysler C. Ford D. Nissan E. Toyota

30. The minimum amount of time a dependent activity must be delayed to begin or end is referred to as:  A. Hammock B. Laddering C. Lag D. Cushion E. Buffer

31. The requirement for a freshly poured foundation to cure before beginning construction is an example of which of the following type of lag?  A. Start to Start B. Start to Finish C. Finish to Finish D. Finish to Start E. Any of these could be correct

32. Concurrent engineering is a good example of good use of  A. Start to Start lags B. Start to Finish lags C. Finish to Finish lags D. Finish to Start lags E. Any of these could be correct

33. If testing cannot be completed any earlier than four days after the prototype is built, which of the following type of lag exists?  A. Start to Start B. Start to Finish C. Finish to Finish D. Finish to Start E. Any of these could be correct

34. Which of the following represents an activity on an AOA project network?  A. An arrow B. A line C. A node D. Both A and B are correct E. A, B, and C are all correct

35. Nodes on an AON project network represent:  A. An activity B. An event C. Responsibility D. Both B and C are correct E. Both A and B are correct

36. A(n) ________ is an element in the project that consumes time.  ________________________________________

37. The activity time estimates used to build a project network are derived from ________.  ________________________________________

38. A ________ is an activity that has more than one predecessor.  ________________________________________

39. In a ________ the delaying of any activity will delay the completion of the project by the same amount.  ________________________________________

40. Activities that can take place at the same time if the manager wishes them to are called ________.  ________________________________________

41. A (n) ________ represents a point in time when an activity is started or completed and does not consume

#BUS 517 Final Exam – Strayer New

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BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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Week 11 DQ 1

"Operations Management" Please respond to the following:

· Explain how this course has impacted your knowledge in operations management, and then determine which areas significantly affected your understanding on how operations strategy supports the business strategy.

Week 11 DQ 2

"Operations Manager" Please respond to the following:

· Explain three challenges that are present in an operations manager’s role, and then determine key methods in which you would mitigate those challenges. Provide specific examples to support your rationale.

#BUS 515 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer NEW

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BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer New

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"Transfer It" Please respond to the following:

• Propose two (2) applications of knowledge that you have learned in this course to your current or a future position.

• Create a list of three (3) best practices to follow in the field of contemporary business.

#BUS 508 Week 11 Discussion Question – Strayer New

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BUS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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Week 11 DQ 1

"Looking Back" Please respond to the following:

• Thinking back on everything you have learned in this course, what single lesson learned was the most surprising or interesting. Explain what made it so.

• Describe the most difficult concept or process addressed in this course. Create an analogy that would help someone encountering that concept or process for the first time to better understand what it is about.

Week 11 DQ 2

"Looking Ahead" Please respond to the following:

• Discuss how you can effectively apply what you have learned in this class even if you wind up in a position that has absolutely nothing to do with contracting with the federal government.

• Imagine yourself five years from now working for a firm (or perhaps head of your own firm) that gets 100% of its business from the federal government. Discuss what you would like the most and what you would like the least of being in such a position.

#BUS 505 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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Week 11 DQ 1

"Operations Management Applications" Please respond to the following:

· Evaluate different operations management principles and techniques that can make businesses more profitable today.

· Select one service company of your choice and discuss at least three operations management challenges the company is facing.

· Suggest ways to confront the challenges and provide suggestions that can untimely improve sustainability in its value chain.

Week 11 DQ 2

"The Value Chain Concept" Please respond to the following:

· Describe a customer experience you have personally encountered where the goods or service or both were unsatisfactory (such as defective products, mistakes, poor service, and so on).

· Suggest ways for the organization to improve its goods / service. Determine the element(s) of operations management that must be reevaluated.

#BUS 430 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer

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BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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Week 11 DQ 1

Summation

Please respond to the following:

• Reflecting back on everything you have learned in this course, discuss the single most important lesson any entrepreneur should apply in order to be successful. Explain your rationale.

• Summarize the lessons learned in this course in 140 characters or less (something you could post on Twitter).

Week 11 DQ 2

My Dream Business

Please respond to the following:

• Discuss the most innovative idea you can dream up for a new business. Explain why you think it would be successful.

• Discuss the major challenges you would face in running such a business and how you would expect to overcome them. Provide specific examples to support your response.

#BUS 402 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 13 and 14

Business Process Management and Systems Development

Multiple Choice

1. __________ are the building blocks of each functional area, e.g., accounts receivable (A/R) and accounts payable (A/P)

a) IT procedures

b) Business processes

c) Business strategies

d) Competitive forces

2. __________ is a technology approach to implementing a business process, but it’s only part of the technology required to implement business processes.

a) MIS

b) BPM

c) SaaS

d) SOA

3. Microsoft International’s lack of standardized business processes and process documentation had a number of adverse impacts on the HR team. Which is not one of those adverse impacts?

a) Decrease in errors by new hires

b) Increased the time and cost to train new employees

c) Limited ability to review their business processes

d) Decreased business process efficiency

4. Which is not one of the benefits that Microsoft International achieved through the use of Visio and business process modeling?

a) Significant savings in labor hours through increased process efficiency

b) Decrease in the training time of newly hired employees

c) Improved decision making through visual process analysis

d) Improved relationships with supply chain partners

5. When you break it down, you see that a business process is actually __________.

a) a project of known scope with an assigned budget

b) a loosely defined approach to solving an unstructured problem

c) a series of individual tasks executed in a specific order

d) clearly defined and automated by software

6. A process has inputs and outputs that are __________, which is necessary so it can be managed.

a) qualitative

b) measurable

c) visual

d) summary metrics

7. Business processes integrate __________.

a) software and hardware

b) ISs and people

c) data and models

d) dashboards and scoreboards

8. The __________ spec, also called the technical spec, is important to managers because it identifies how the business process will be implemented in as much detail as possible.

a) evaluation

b) implementation

c) project

d) design

9. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because they determine whether the process is designed well from users’ perspective.

a) user acceptance

b) functional acceptance

c) system acceptance

d) integration

10. A(n) __________ is a set of technologies used for exchanging data between applications and for connecting processes with other systems across the organization, and with business partners.

a) ERP

b) mashup

c) SOA

d) Web service

11. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are critical because that is when analysts test whether the process performs its functions.

a) user acceptance

b) functional acceptance

c) system acceptance

d) technical acceptance

12. During the implementation stage, __________ tests are conducted by technical experts who attest that the process is integrated correctly with inputs and outputs of other processes and data sources and data stores

a) user acceptance

b) functional acceptance

c) system acceptance

d) integration acceptance

13. In the short term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.

a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs

b) become more responsive to business changes

c) increase sales revenues and profit margins

d) all of the above

14. In the long term, business process management (BPM) helps companies __________.

a) improve profitability by reducing waste and costs

b) become more responsive to business changes

c) increase sales revenues and profit margins

d) all of the above

15. After decades of business process reengineering attempts, organizations still have problems with their business operations. What are those problems?

a) They duplicate processes

b) They perform hundreds of non-core tasks that should be outsourced

c) They spend vast amounts on proprietary process-management software that's difficult to update

d) All of the above

16. British Telecom, United Airlines, and other companies that focused their BPM initiatives on process automation and cost savings had achieved significant operational efficiencies __________.

a) and higher market share

b) but lost their competitive edge and fell short of their performance targets

c) but only for a short time as competitors copied their efforts

d) because they were linked to their business strategies.

17. Changes to business apps that were needed prior to year 2000 were tedious and time-consuming because they were tightly coupled programs written in __________.

a) COBOL

b) Java

c) Visio

d) Flash

18. __________ components have minimal dependence on each other, which simplifies testing, maintenance and troubleshooting because problems are easy to isolate and unlikely to spread.

a) Tightly coupled

b) Hardwired

c) Loosely connected

d) COBOL

19. The advantage of the __________ is that any tier can be upgraded or replaced independently as business requirements or technology change.

a) tightly coupled architecture

b) middleware and graphical user-interface

#BUS 365 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz– Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 14

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover.  True False

2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment.  True False

3. An employee's perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job.  True False

4. An employee's overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee.  True False

5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs.  True False

6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover.  True False

7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job.  True False

8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches.  True False

9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed.  True False

10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent.  True False

11. The types of employee turnover include ___________.  A. voluntary B. discharge C. downsizing D. all of the above

12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________.  A. a site or plant closing B. permanent layoff C. poor employee performance D. none of the above

13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______.  A. voluntary B. involuntary C. supplemental D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing

14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________.  A. poor person/organization match B. favorable labor market conditions C. general, transferable KSAOs D. none of the above

15. An employee's intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________.  A. perceived desirability of movement B. perceived ease of movement C. alternatives available to the employee D. all of the above

16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____.  A. employees are highly embedded B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs C. labor markets are loose D. all of the above

17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________.  A. overstaffing B. understaffing C. an appropriate staffing level D. none of the above

18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations.  True False

19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys.  True False

20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy.  True False

21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee's immediate supervisor whenever possible.  True False

22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization.  True False

23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee's last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences.  True False

24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage.  True False

25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs.  True False

26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements.  True False

27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly.  True False

28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases.  True False

29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities.  True False

30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills.  True False

31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force.  True False

32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees.  A. rehiring rights B. benefits C. confidentiality agreements D. all of the above

33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview?  A. The interviewer should be the employee's immediate supervisor. B. There should be an unstructured interview format. C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee's personnel file. D. None of the above

34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving?  A. Position analysis B. Job rotation C. Exit interview D. Discharge notification

35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________.  A. hiring inducements B. rehiring costs C. manager's time D. more than one of the above

36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________.  A. HR staff induction costs B. mentoring C. severance pay D. contagion

37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover?  A. lowered replacement costs B. savings from not replacing an employee C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed D. all of the above

38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover?  A. Accrued paid time off B. Possibility of a lawsuit C. Staffing costs for a new hire D. Formal training

39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________.  A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations B. decreased employee morale C. higher unemployment insurance premiums D. difficulty in attracting new employees

40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing?  A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations C. lower payroll and benefit costs D. all of the above

41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services.  True False

42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees.  True False

43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors.  True False

44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors.  True False

45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects.  True False

46. Of the factors that influence an employee's desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations.  True False

47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates.  True False

48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace.  True False

49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication.  True False

50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings.  True False

51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs.  True False

52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover.  True False

53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave.  True False

54. The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________.  A. redesign employee jobs B. increase pay C. improve job satisfaction D. none of the above

55. Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________.  A. establish a lag pay policy for all employees B. link rewards to retention behaviors C. keeping core operations information secret D. none of the above

56. Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving?  A. low training investment B. strong KSAOs C. retirement D. low seniority

57. Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving?  A. little intellectual capital B. high seniority C. high performance D. all of the above

58. Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____.  A. provide team-building B. convince employees that there are few alternatives C. offer "bundles" of HR practices that complement one another D. demonstrate executive commitment to outreach

59. Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization?  A. Poor social environment at work B. Low levels of job satisfaction C. Employee shocks D. All of these can be addressed by organizational policy

60. Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____.  A. providing deferred compensation B. giving specific rewards for seniority C. increasing pay levels to surpass the market D. all of the above

61. Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____.  A. turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases B. turnover is increased across the board C. turnover is decreased across the board D. turnover rates are largely unaffected

62. Work-life balance programs are an example of _____.  A. communal distribution B. intrinsic rewards C. instrumentality D. a completely ineffective retention strategy

63. Research on organizational justice suggests that ____.  A. justice only influences turnover in highly industrialized Western countries B. communication has little impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions C. employees are typically well-informed about organizational policies D. none of the above

64. To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____.  A. reduce headcount B. provide deferred compensation C. increase workloads D. provide free stock to employees

65. Performance management systems enable organizations to ensure that an initial person/job match yields an effectively performing employee.  True False

66. One recommendation for an effective performance appraisal or management system is that appraisal criteria should be job-related, specific, and communicated in advance to the employee.  True False

67. Performance management systems are used primarily to detect individuals whose performance is unsatisfactory and should be terminated.  True False

68. Poor task performance is the result of insufficient ability, knowledge, skills, or motivation.  True False

69. In progressive discipline, termination is seen as a viable early option to avoid having to work through a potentially fruitless cycle of improving a low-ability worker.  True False

70. Employee termination is the final step in progressive discipline, and ideally it would never be necessary.  True False

71. As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____.  A. performance planning B. performance appraisal C. performance execution D. progressive discipline

72. Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________.  A. evaluations should be in writing B. the employee should receive timely feedback about the evaluation and an explanation for any outcome decision C. there should be agreement among different raters in their evaluation of the employee's performance D. all of the above

73. ______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description.  A. Citizenship B. Task performance C. (Low) Counterproductivity D. All of the above

74. Which of the following is not a part of normal progressive discipline?  A. Give employees notice of the rules of conduct B. Provide employees with alternative employment if performance problems persist C. Allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct D. Give employees the right to appeal a decision

75. Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense?  A. sabotage B. theft C. drug/alcohol abuse at work D. all of the above

76. The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is _____________.  A. suspension or discharge B. written reprimand C. verbal reprimand D. none of the above

77. Discharge turnover targets groups of employees and is also known as reduction in force. (RIF).  True False

78. Data shows dramatic decreases in organizational stock price following a downsizing, especially if the downsizing organization restructures assets during downsizing.  True False

79. Research shows that downsizing has negative impacts on employee morale and health, workgroup creativity and communication, and workforce quality.  True False

80. No-layoff policies cannot be implemented effectively by organizations.  True False

81. One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____.  A. increased payroll costs B. decreases in employee health and motivation C. most companies fail to downsize sufficiently D. insufficient attention to issues of seniority

82. Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels?  A. Attrition B. Retraining C. Benefits reductions D. Job sharing

83. In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____.  A. reductions in trust of management B. stress among those who remain C. reductions in workforce quality D. all of the above

84. Legal experts usually advise organizations to avoid documenting performance problems because the "paper trail" is likely to just lead to problems in court.  True False

85. From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____.  A. organizationally relevant B. sufficiently general to cover a variety of situations C. communicated in advance to the employee D. all of the above

#BUS 335 Week 11 Quiz– Strayer

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BUS 322 Week 11 Discussion Questions – Strayer New

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Week 11 DQ 1

"Looking Back" Please respond to the following:

• Create a simile or metaphor for what it is like to manage organizational behavior – one that would help someone with no knowledge of the field better understand what it is all about.

• Assess how what you have learned in this class could be used most effectively by someone with no professional connection to organizational behavior.

Week 11 DQ 2

"Looking Ahead" Please respond to the following:

• Determine the single most important lesson learned and how you will apply it in your current (or future) career.

• Predict the major challenges business will be facing in terms of organization behavior 20 years from now. Provide specific examples to support your response.

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Week 11 Discussion 1

"Summary" Please respond to the following:

· Imagine you are at a party where you have to describe what human resource management is all about. Provide a brief summary to your fellow partygoers.

· Persuade a fellow business major why taking this course is in his/her best interest. What would you say to be persuasive?

Week 11 Discussion 2

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"Course Wrap-Up" Please respond to the following:

· Describe what elements are most valuable to your learning in this course, such as reading the textbook, listening to lectures, discussions, writing papers, etc.

· Describe what you remember most about this course.

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BUS 309 Week 11 Quiz – Strayer

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Quiz 10 Chapter 11

Job Discrimination

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which of the following is true based on documented evidence of discrimination?

African Americans have the third highest standard of living in the world.

Today, men are just as likely as women to be in so-called "pink collar" occupations.

There is little statistical evidence of job discrimination today.

Relatively few women and minorities have made it to the very top of their professions.

2. A historical view indicates which of the following is correct?

Statistical evidence is irrelevant to proving discrimination.

Women and blacks are sometimes victimized by stereotypes.

The idea that women may have difficulties fitting into a "male" work environment is outdated.

On average women earn between 1/3 and 1/2 of what men make for doing the very same work.

3. Which of these statements is true concerning court cases about discrimination?

Brown v. Board of Education upheld the principle of "separate but equal."

The Bakke case outlawed affirmative action across the board.

In the 2004 Holtz case, the Supreme Court ruled that "race-conscious" admissions policies are unconstitutional.

In the recent University of Michigan cases (Gratz and Grutter), the Supreme Court upheld a moderate, flexible affirmative action program and rejected a rigid one.

4. Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument FOR affirmative action?

It evens the score with young white men, who have had it good for too long.

It is necessary to break the cycle that keeps minorities and women locked into low-paying, low-prestige jobs.

It ignores the principle of equality.

It is a color-blind policy.

5. Of these four arguments, which of the following is the most plausible argument AGAINST affirmative action?

Compensatory justice forbids affirmative action.

Blacks and whites are already equal in socioeconomic terms.

Affirmative action violates the rights of white men to equal treatment.

Affirmative action is the same thing as fixed numerical quotas.

6. Advocates of "comparable worth"

say that all women do their job just as well as men.

base their doctrine on the free-market determination of wages.

believe it is necessary for getting rid of sexual harassment.

want women to be paid as much as men for jobs involving equivalent skill, effort, and responsibility.

7. Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment?

Unwelcome sexual offers a female employer gives to a male employee.

A female employee hugging a co-worker when he announces his engagement.

A manager enforcing a dress code for a work environment.

An employee pinning up comic strips in an office cubicle.

8. Sexual comments that one woman appreciates might distress another women. Who decides when such behavior is inappropriate?

The person to whom the comments are directed.

The person accused of harassment.

The hypothetical "reasonable person."

The common law as modified by legislation.

9. The 1984 Supreme Court decision in Memphis Firefighters v. Stotts

treated sexual harassment as a form of discrimination.

upheld seniority over affirmative action.

upheld the legality of hiring quotas.

upheld the legality of mandatory drug testing.

10. In 1987, the Supreme Court affirmed, in the case of Johnson v. Transportation Agency, that

affirmative action is unconstitutional.

quotas based on considerations of race are unconstitutional.

considerations of sex are permissible as one factor in deciding whom to promote.

racially segregated schooling is unconstitutional.

11. Which of the following statements is accurate?

Men cannot be victims of sexual harassment.

The Supreme Court has established a hard and fast line between permissible and impermissible affirmative action plans.

The law treats sexual harassment as a form of sexual discrimination.

Differences in levels and types of education explain why, on the average, men earn more than women.

12. When investigators sent equally qualified young white and black men—all of them articulate and conventionally dressed—to apply for entry-level jobs in Chicago and Washington, D.C., the results clearly showed

sexual discrimination against young African-American men.

racial discrimination against young African-American men.

sexual discrimination against young white men.

racial discrimination against young white men.

13. What quality is more important in predicting who gets fired than job-performance ratings or even prior disciplinary history?

race

sexual orientation

age

gender

14. Male managers frequently assume that women

will not place family demands above work considerations.

possess the necessary drive to succeed in business.

take negative feedback professionally rather than personally.

are too emotional to be good managers.

15. What do affirmative action programs involve?

Firms should prepare an oral equal-employment policy and an affirmative action commitment.

Firms should appoint an administrative assistant to direct and implement their program and to publicize their policy and affirmative action commitment.

Firms are expected to survey current

female and minority employment by department and job classification.

Whenever underrepresentation of females or minorities is evident, firms are to try a little harder.

16. Fill in the blank. Today most large corporations not only accept the necessity of affirmative action but also find that _______________ benefits when they make themselves more diverse?

the morale of the company

the law department

the bottom line

the managers

17. Many Americans oppose what issue because they fear it will lead to illegal quotas, preferential treatment of African Americans and women, and even reverse discrimination against white men?

affirmative action

sexual harassment

sexual diversity

age discrimination

18. Over the last two decades, how many sexual-harassment claims have emerged?

over 12,000 annually.

over 25,000 annually.

over 15,000 annually.

over 50,000 annually.

19. There are two legal types of sexual harassment:

male to female, female to male.

male to male, female to female.

boss to worker, worker to boss.

“quid pro quo’’ and “hostile work environment.’’

20. To answer the question of who determines what is objectionable or offensive in sexual harassment, the courts use what kind of hypothetical person?

reasonable person

hysterical person

sensual person

management person

21. One message that sexual harassment conveys is that managers view women as

assets.

equals.

high potentials.

playthings.

22. What should a female employee do if she encounters sexual harassment?

She must decide if she likes the attention.

She should try to document it by keeping a record of what has occurred, who was involved, and when it happened.

Keep it to herself and never tell a soul.

Go on a talk show and tell her story.

23. According to Shaw and Barry, companies clearly have what kind of obligation to provide a work environment in which employees are free from sexual harassment?

legal

moral

environmental

personal

24. Opponents of comparable worth insist which one of these ideas support their position?

Most women want a rigid schedule.

Most women want the most challenging job.

Most women have chosen the higher paying occupations.

Most women have freely chosen the lower paying occupations.

25. Affirmative action, comparable worth, and sexual harassment are connected to

job performance.

job discrimination.

job analysis.

job description.

TRUE/FALSE

1. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin.

2. Experts distinguish two types of sexual harassment. "Hostile work environment" is one of them.

3. The Supreme Court has ruled that sexual favoritism is a form of sexual harassment and is therefore illegal.

4. To discriminate in employment is to make an adverse decision against an employee or job applicant based solely on his or her membership in a certain class.

5. The Supreme Court, in its 1978 ruling in the case of Bakke v. Regents of the University of California, upheld the University's right to reserve entrance places in its medical school for minorities.

6. The terms "affirmative action" and "reverse discrimination" are synonymous.

7. Kantians would repudiate sexual or racial job discrimination as disrespectful to our humanity.

8. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 allowed sexual and racial discrimination at work until overturned by the Supreme Court.

9. "Affirmative action" refers to programs taking the race and sex of employees and job candidates into account as part of an effort to correct imbalances in employment that exist as a result of past discrimination, either in the company itself or in the larger society.

10. The issue of comparable worth pits against each other two cherished American values: the ethic of nondiscrimination verses the free enterprise system.

11. The only true form of job discrimination is intentional and individual.

12. Catherine A. MacKinnon describes sexual harassment as sexual attention imposed on someone who is not in a position to refuse it.

13. An isolated or occasional remark or innuendo inevitably constitutes sexual harassment.

14. According to the Supreme Court, men cannot be the victims of sexual harassment.

15. The courts view sexual harassment as a kind of sexual discrimination.

16. The 1995 case Adarand Constructors v. Pena shows that, after years of disagreement, the Supreme Court is now unanimous on the issue of affirmative action.

17. Job discrimination involves prejudice, inaccurate stereotypes, or the assumption that a certain group is inferior and deserves unequal treatment.

18. Some companies view diversity in the workplace as a competitive advantage.

19. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 applies to all employers, both public and private, with twenty five or more employees.

20. Executive Order 10925 decreed that federal contractors should “make rigid quotas to ensure that applicants are employed without regard to their race, creed, color, or national origin.’’

21. Women entering male turf, or minority workers of either sex going into a predominantly white work environment, can find themselves uncomfortably being measured by a white male value system.

22. Statistics by themselves do not prove discrimination.

23. A survey shows that three out of four whites believe that African Americans and Hispanics are more likely than whites to prefer living on welfare, and a majority of whites also believe that African Americans and Hispanics are more likely to be lazy, unpatriotic, and prone to violence.

24. Anti-discrimination laws do not address the present-day effects of past discrimination.

25. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (later amended by the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972) prohibits all forms of discrimination based on race, color, sex, religion, or national origin.

SHORT ANSWER

1. Job discrimination occurs if three conditions are met. What are they?

2. Job discrimination can be individual or intentional. What are two other forms that job discrimination can take?

3. What is some of the statistical evidence of job discrimination?

4. What is some of the attitudinal evidence of job discrimination?

5. What did the Supreme Court decide in 1954 in the case of Brown v. Board of Education?

6. What does Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act say?

7. EEOC lists steps to affirmative action. Name two of them.

8. Explain the importance of the 1978 case, Bakke v. Regents of the University of California.

9. What is the Supreme Court's current view of affirmative action (as evidenced by the Michigan cases Gratz and Grutter)?

10. Affirmative action should be distinguished from reverse discrimination. What is the difference?

11. What is the doctrine of comparable worth? On what grounds do opponents of comparable worth criticize it?

12. What evidence do we have that sexual harassment is harmful to people?

13. What is an example of strong evidence that racial or sexual discrimination exists?

14. What steps should a male or female employee take when encountering sexual harassment?

ESSAY

1. Explain in your own words the pros and cons of the against affirmative action that “affirmative action injures white men and violates their rights.”

2. Explain why sexual harassment is unethical considering two moral theories.

3. Explain why job discrimination is unethical considering two moral theories.

4. Is it unrealistic to imagine that there will be no sexual interaction between men and women in the workplace? Produce the reasoning on both sides of the argument.

5. Should the sexual orientation of gays and lesbians be protected against discrimination? Justify your answer.

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Quiz Chapter 16 and 17

Other Supply Responsibilities

113. Investment recovery is often assigned to:

a. supply managers because they have knowledge supply markets and price trends.

b. salespeople because they have contact with buyers who may use the material.

c. marketing managers because they have information on internal users.

d. engineers who can suggest possible uses of the material within the organization.

e. financial analysts because they set the target return on all investments.

114. Efforts to deal with hazardous waste include a focus on:

a. highly visible sources of pollution, e.g. smoke stacks.

b. less visible uncontrolled sites, e.g. buried waste.

c. recycling.

d. substitution of non-hazardous materials for hazardous materials.

e. all of the above.

115. The potential benefits of having accounts payable report to the same executive as supply include:

a. familiarity with the supplier

b. familiarity with the order.

c. opportunities to reduce transaction costs and headcount.

d. the ability for supply to ensure that payments for suppliers are made on time.

e. all of the above.

116. Reducing the obsolescence and waste of maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supplies through better materials and inventory management will:

a. reduce the costs of disposing of MRO items that are obsolete or waste.

b. reduce carrying cost by lowering inventory levels, especially of obsolete items.

c. improve environmental performance by reducing waste that goes into landfills or incinerators.

d. simultaneously reduce costs and improve environmental performance.

e. have little impact because MRO is a small percentage of annual spend and the items usually have low environmental low-impact.

117. Warehousing and inventory storage:

a. can either be an internal function or outsourced to a third-party logistics firm.

b. typically has little communication with supply management.

c. may have direct responsibility for organizational purchasing decisions.

d. outsourcing decisions typically are made by the finance department.

e. is seldom outsourced.

118. One of the reasons why companies are paying more attention to the effective, efficient, and profitable recovery and disposal of scrap, surplus, obsolete, and waste materials is that:

a. consumers overwhelmingly demand environmental responsibility.

b. it is easy to administer and highly profitable.

c. most organizations generate little scrap, surplus, obsolete and waste materials.

d. disposal costs are rising and environmental legislation is strengthening.

e. disposal is a fairly simple problem that is easily resolved.

119. The role and importance of investment recovery in an organization is driven in large part by the:

a. CEO’s perspective on environmental issues.

b. Chief Purchasing Officer’s clout or leverage with other executives.

c. projected dollar value of the potential revenue recovery or cost reduction.

d. salespeople who encourage the inclusion of buy-back programs of key materials.

e. internal level of knowledge about disposal channels and suppliers.

120. Coordinating inbound and outbound transportation:

a. has little application in an effective and efficient supply organization.

b. is done by cross-functional teams in most organizations.

c. helps to reduce costs and improve utilization of related assets and resources.

d. provides the basic elements of a global supply network.

e. is used extensively in Europe, but has not migrated to the U.S.

121. Production planning:

a. focuses on long-term schedules to control inventory and production.

b. requires coordinating the delivery and storage of key raw materials.

c. cannot involve supply because of fears of undue influence from suppliers.

d. relies heavily on forecasts from purchasing and supply management.

e. is a discrete activity with little coordination with other functions.

122. Supply can contribute to the organization’s environmental management program by:

a. developing sourcing and usage alternatives for hazardous materials.

b. focusing on substitution of non-hazardous materials for hazardous materials.

c. encouraging and participating in designing products that do not use or generate hazardous waste.

d. a and b.

e. a, b and c.

True and False

1. Production planning relies heavily on forecasts from operations to anticipate demand for products and services..

2. To ensure maximum return for its investment, the process and procedures for selling scrap and surplus must cover a broad range of activities including segregation and storage, weighing and measuring, delivery, negotiation, supplier selection, and payment.

3. If material has been declared surplus, the only option is to sell it.

4. Obsolete is in the eyes of the beholder. Something that has been declared obsolete in one organization may be perfectly acceptable and useable in another.

5. It makes no sense to assign responsibility for disposal to the supply management function because the personnel usually have no selling experience.

6. The total cost of hazardous waste for a company does not include the costs of new plant and equipment to reduce waste and deal with contaminated plants.

7. Escalator clauses in contracts for scrap disposal are necessary because the prices of primary metals fluctuate.

8. An organization’s Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system may be used to develop a national or global database for company personnel at different locations to post and purchase spare parts, obsolete materials, and surplus.

9. Waste is created when a change in the production process occurs, or when a better material is substituted for the material originally used.

10. As more people come to believe that it makes economic sense to practice environmentally sound operations, business and government may be able to work together for common goals.

CHAPTER 17

SUPPLY FUNCTION EVALUATION AND TRENDS

123. Research on the supply management process focuses on:

a. developing a strategy to reduce cost or ensure supply.

b. improving buyer-seller relationships.

c. deciding whether to single or multiple source.

d. conducting cost analysis to identify unnecessary costs.

e. increasing efficiency by automating where possible.

124. Purchasing performance benchmarking attempts to:

a. analyze a firm's own internal trends.

b. provide industrywide standards for overall firm performance.

c. determine what results have been achieved by purchasing and supply activities.

d. determine how an organization achieves results in purchasing and supply.

e. provide baseline metrics to compare companies’ supply performance.

125. The budget which begins with an estimate of expected operations, based on sales forecasts and plans, is called the:

a. operating budget.

b. capital budget.

c. cash flow budget.

d. materials purchase budget.

e. organizational budget.

126. When cross-functional teams are used to conduct research, it is best if:

a. the team has strong leadership.

b. the team has total autonomy to decide objectives and set expectations.

c. team members are randomly selected from departments.

d. performance evaluation and reward systems foster individual contributions.

e. each team member develops time management skills to handle the assignment.

127. In terms of measuring and validating supply savings:

1. information systems easily capture savings.

2. static markets, technologies, and volumes facilitate the process.

3. in many cases there is an inability to convert savings into profit.

4. management usually recognizes cumulative savings.

5. there is a universal definition of supply savings.

128. Supply can play a leadership role in corporate social responsibility (CSR) by:

1. instituting third party workplace audits of suppliers in developing countries.

2. knowing the providence of products in the supply chain.

3. considering the organization’s carbon footprint in supply decisions.

4. designing closed loop supply chains.

5. all of the above.

129. The assessment of a supplier’s financial capacity:

1. enables the development of risk minimization strategies.

2. predicts the probability of the supplier encountering financial problems.

3. is done primarily to ensure the supplier has the cash to pay its bills.

4. usually is unnecessary if the supplier has been in business for more than 5 years.

5. is required before a contract can be ratified.

130. A comprehensive commodity study should result in a(n):

a. thorough analysis of sources used over time.

b. strategy to lower cost and assure supply.

c. review of past predictions and variances from actual prices paid.

d. assessment of the performance of the commodity manager.

e. trend analysis of volume requirements over time.

131. Trends in supply organization and leadership include:

a. more chief purchasing officers with extensive supply experience.

b. less emphasis on teams.

c. global projects requiring cross-cultural skills.

d. merging of strategic and tactical roles in supply.

e. emphasis on “hard skills” such as finance.

132. An efficiency-oriented performance metric:

a. evaluates the quality of supplier relationships.

b. measures end customer satisfaction.

c. measures direct contributions to profit.

d. calculates the average dollar cost of a purchase order.

e. measures number of defects caused by poor incoming quality.

True and False

1. The perceptions that non-supply managers have of supply are shaped by interactions with and observations of supply, tangible experiences with supply on a day-to-day basis, and the extent to which supply is seen as contributing to the firm's mission.

2. Value engineering is done on purchased items used in the ongoing production process, while value analysis is done in the design stage where items are being specified.

3.Triple bottom line reporting refers to an organization’s social, environmental, and financial performance.

4. Effectiveness metrics which emphasize price may lead to behavior that drives up total cost of ownership.

5. The supply planning process is initiated by the supply manager’s assessment of the supply base.

6. Industry benchmarking allows an individual company to compare itself to its major competitor.

7. Financial efficiency is indicated by the asset and inventory turnover ratios.

8. Supplier performance management systems should be designed to capture and communicate the failures of suppliers so penalties can be assessed.

9. Supply management’s contribution may be measured along three dimensions: revenue enhancement, asset management, and cost management.

10. Internal validation of supply’s financial contribution increases joint ownership of goals and outcomes.

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